When designing health science studies analyzing causal contributory factors influencing diseases, researchers carefully select independent, dependent, and intervening variables shaping inquiries answering hypotheses. Two common intervening variables – mediators and moderators – contribute illuminating effects but differ drastically regarding relationships to variables and subsequent data interpretations.
Clearly distinguishing between the mediator and moderator variable functions proves paramount in conducting accurate analyses. Weigh similarities and contrasts between these research roles below to precisely identify proper classifications when scrutinizing statistics pointing toward publishing.
Mediator variables demonstrate intermediary effects coaxed by independent variables, ultimately influencing dependent outcomes down the road. Mediators “speak to” independent variable stimuli answering through identifiable sequential actions affecting the final results registered.
For example, in testing, if nursing communication approaches improve patient medication regimen adherence post-discharge, perceived caring levels by patients mediate influencer communications first before projecting later prescription compliance levels tallied (the dependent outcome). So mediator variables help explicate causal chains flowing from initial IV elements. Researchers confirm mediation by isolating these middleman impacts statistically.
Moderators alter the strength or direction of relationships between variables by influencing associated correlations through third-factor introductions such as changes in settings, environments, or supplemental interventions integrated additionally.
For instance, when examining medication regimen adherence improvement interventions, patient age acts as a moderation variable because differently aged demographic groups often demonstrate variable intervention effectiveness intensities (young adult males perform worse than elderly women, etc). Thereby, age moderates the intervention–prescription compliance relationship, warranting further subgroup analysis.
Now that isolated definitions establish baseline understandings around respective mediator and moderator variable roles within studies, how else do these research protagonists differ in analytical interpretations and data applications?
Degrees of mediation spread across a spectrum indicating the strength of intermediary impacts at play ranging from no statistical significance to full mediation accounting for entire effects. Analysts assess partial, incomplete, or complete mediation classification gradients according to the proportions of indirect relationships detected between all variables linked.
Mediator variables only affirm directional relationships flowing from initial independent causes through outcomes down the line. So whether the IV element increases or decreases then so follows the mediating variable upwards or downwards as well. This allows tracing explanatory effect sequences to reveal why certain phenomena manifest.
In contrast, moderator roles reveal no intrinsic directionality or causation clues between variables themselves but rather apply third-element influences revealing “when or for whom” variabilities emerge between associations tracked. Moderators introduce conditional situations exposing alternative independent and dependent variable interplay intensities.
Proving mediation requires meeting a three-pronged test satisfying:
Researchers lean on regression analysis calculations determining mediation variable impacts if the above associative analysis thresholds reached confirming sequence suspicions.
Demonstrating moderation also utilizes regression approaches, inserting interaction elements combining moderator factors with independent variables initially correlated with outcomes. Resulting strength fluctuations indicate moderation evidence when calculating dependent variable prediction capacities improved or degraded by inserting moderator contributors.
So while both mediator and moderator research roles shape analytical evaluations through supplemental augmentation effects, directionality deductions and spectrum of influences markedly differ. Now onto the application!
Mediator demonstrations: Perceived nurse caring mediates communications influencing patient health information comprehension as an intermediary motivator stimulating knowledge retention efforts.
Moderator demonstrations: Patient gender moderated effects of customized health teaching efficacy revealing males struggled to retain sodium diet details, unlike females in heart failure clinics.
Their mediator transmits communicator vehicle impacts, eventually driving knowledge improvements downstream. Meanwhile, gender activates group variability between intervention method productivity revealing customization proves less universally effective pending audience analyses.
Confounding variables skew connections between independent and dependent variables through unintended third-party relationships, while mediators emerge intentionally from IV origins, sequentially impacting eventual effects purposefully.
Mediators classified intermediary variables transmitting entirely new secondary effects stemming from initial independent variables further down the line before reaching terminal dependent outcomes.
Suspected mediator variables demonstrate multiple correlation associations sequentially aligning first with independent origins and eventual endpoint results weighted through regression calculations confirming proportionate causation contributors flowing through hypothesized sequences.
Moderator examples include demographic factors like patient age or gender stratifying intervention effectiveness intensities on outcome measures based on subgroup variabilities responding differently to integrated treatments.
No, because a mediator must transmit effects unidirectionally stemming from earlier elements, while moderators merely multiply the intensities of existing connections rather than propagating new intermediary impacts.
No, moderators enter analyses intentionally as designated contributors upholding explanatory powers, unlike unpredictable confounding interlopers skewing links through inadvertent overlapping effects. Think purposeful versus preventable!
Suspected moderating variables require demonstrating interaction effects strengthening or dampening existing correlations between predictors and outcomes after deliberately inserting a third supplemental factor during controlled evaluations, quantifying any fluctuating impact intensities.
A mediator demonstrates intermediate interceding effects originating from preceding independent causes, ultimately projecting downstream impacts on terminal dependent outcome measures situated sequentially.
A moderator reveals conditional situations where intruding secondary elements alter the strengths or directions of primary correlations between predictor and outcome variables interjecting across initial associations.
No, because mediators transmit singular directionality effects stemming from earlier independent origins, while moderators merely multiply the intensities of existing connections rather than producing any new intermediary impacts en route to final targets.
A mental health assessment is a critical part in the determination of the existence of a mental health complication, as well as in the establishment of the appropriate treatment methods. Some of the main components of a mental health assessment include a physical examination, laboratory tests, psychiatric history and a personal history of the patient (Patel & Singh, 2018). It is also critical to assess the patient’s appearance and general conduct, consciousness levels and attention span, mood and affect, speech, insight and higher cognitive functions. In this paper, I shall discus the risk assessment and diagnostic features of a mental health assessment.
A therapeutic relationship, also known as a therapeutic alliance, refers to the close and continuous association existing between a health care practitioner and an individual undergoing therapy. Further, as Torous and Hsin (2018) notes, therapeutic relationship aids in the betterment of a person’s life as it forms the basis of a safe space where an individual share his or her intimate thoughts, beliefs and emotions triggered by various circumstances in life. It is also critical in determining factors that may exacerbate an individual’s mental condition.
It is very important that the health care professional provides a safe, open and non-judgemental environment where the patient seeking therapy can feel at ease and open up to the therapist. Trust and respect are some of the vital components of an effective therapeutic relationship. The therapist must also demonstrate a sense of empathy towards his patients. There is need to establish boundaries by both parties as they help in defining acceptable and non-acceptable behaviours.
A good therapeutic relationship is one of the key steps towards recovery of the patient. One of the main components of a productive therapeutic relationship is trust. The patient must trust that his or her health care provider is competent and possesses the appropriate knowledge and know how to provide appropriate care. The patient must also be confident and trust that his or her therapist will remain professional and confidential consequently protecting the patient from harm and exploitation.
The establishment of a good therapeutic relationship leads to the establishment of a platform where the patient feels more at ease and easily opens up. The patient readily shares her concerns, a factor that enables the therapist to understand the patient’s feelings, thoughts and motives (Gopalkrishnan, 2018). Ideally, this aids in the determination of the patient’s condition and enables the therapist to initiate the most effective treatment options and other key strategies so as to effectively address the person’s concerns.
A good therapeutic relationship provides an avenue where the patient opens up to the therapist. The therapist is therefore able to comprehend the patient’s social and economic status, past psychiatric history, current medications and prevailing situations in the patient’s life. Comprehension of these various parameters is critical in the establishment of various factors that may be exacerbating the patient’s current mental health condition.
A Mental Status Examination (MSE) is a well-structured assessment of an individual’s behavioural and cognitive functions. It examines the patient’s appearance and behaviour in general, concentration and attention levels, mood and affect; determining whether they are congruent or not, thought process and perception, insight and the patient’s higher functions; which include memory, orientation, intelligence and abstract thinking (Tarafder & Mukhopadhyay, 2018).
An accurately done mental status examination aids in eliciting signs and symptoms of obvious mental conditions and allows for determination of risk factors associated with various mental illnesses. According to Farooq et al. (2020), the mental status examination enables the observation and assessment of an individual’s current mental state. It also provides vital information that is applicable in the diagnosis of a disorder, prognosis determination and assessment of the response towards treatment and management. The Mental Status Examination is a vital assessment tool that aids health care professionals in differentiating various neurologic and psychiatric disorders.
The Mental Status Examination gives an insight into a patient’s emotions, thought process and behavioural patterns at the time of the assessment. This helps in the determination of the presence of a mental health condition and points out the severity of the present condition. It also highlights the level of risk or exposure to risk factors that a patient poses to himself or herself, or to others in the immediate environment.
Risk assessment aims at identifying hazards and risk factors predisposing one to possible harm. It also aims at analysing and evaluating the risks commonly associated with the various hazards (Graney et al., 2020). The final aim is the elimination of the hazard or reduction in the level of risk in situations where it is impossible to eliminate the hazard. Assessment of the level and intent of risk is very important in psychiatric patients.
Assessment and management of the intent of risk of harm causation to self or to others in the society is very vital. It is important to note that cases exist where it is impossible to eliminate risk. However, even in such cases, it is possible to thoroughly assess and manage the level of risk with better patient outcomes. A history of violent conduct or posing a threat to other people is critical. A clear communication of the outcome of both the assessment and management of the risk is critical.
One of the major risks that a psychiatric patient poses to himself or herself is suicide. While conducting a mental status examination, the therapist takes note of the patient’s appearance, behaviour, speech, mood, thoughts, perceptions, cognition and level of insight (Chunduri et al., 2020). All these components are essential in determining the level of suicide risk that the patient poses. During assessment of the patient’s risk of suicide, it is important to consider the individual patient factors and other situational factors that increase the risk of suicide.
Factors greatly predisposing one to increased risk of suicide include gender, often with males at a greater risk. Others include extremes of age, lack of a reliable support structure, prior suicide attempts, and a family history of suicide and possible triggers. The number and severity of psychiatric symptoms, presence of hallucinations and the use of alcohol and other drugs of abuse greatly increase the risk. The mental status examination allows the determination of these factors and consequently allows for ease of assessment and management.
Diagnostic overshadowing is harmful to patients as it denies them their right of receiving an appropriate diagnosis and consequently timely treatment. The practitioner can thus minimize or eliminate diagnostic overshadowing by being respectful and retaining confidentiality, ensuring that communication is directly with the patient and paying attention to non-verbal cues and signs (Geiss et al., 2018). In mental health, diagnostic overshadowing refers to a situation where an individual with a mental health condition receives delayed or non-standard treatment resulting from incorrect attribution of their physical symptoms.
A physical examination is a routine test performed by a health care practitioner to assess the overall health of a patient. It also provides an avenue to highlight the patient’s signs and symptoms and allows the health care practitioner to address any health concerns that the patient may have. Various additional tests can be conducted during the physical examination dependent on the patient’s age, medical and family history. There is need for routine physical examinations, at least once a year for routine checks with the goal of determining any conditions or diseases that may be treatable when diagnosed early.
A thorough physical examination helps in reducing diagnostic overshadowing as the health care practitioner can clearly identify signs and symptoms displayed by the patient at the time of the assessment. This ensures that the primary care provider does not downplay any signs and symptoms presented since they are clear from the examination done. It is clear to the health care practitioner that the patient is not exaggerating his condition. This facilitates early diagnosis of the condition and consequently timely and standard initiation of appropriate treatment. This ensures general positive outcomes.
As broached in this paper, a mental status examination is important in the establishment of diagnosis and the initiation of management. A thorough mental status examination enables the health care practitioner to have a good assessment of the patient’s psychological status. Psychiatric patients pose a great risk to themselves and to others in the society, and as such, assessment of level and intent of risk is critical while conducting a mental status examination.
Diagnostic overshadowing is a common occurrence with health care givers downplaying patient’s presentation resulting in delayed diagnosis and administration of inadequate treatment. A thorough physical examination by a health care practitioner is therefore very vital in reducing and eliminating diagnostic overshadowing. Additionally, this ensures timely diagnosis and treatment initiation resulting in positive health outcomes.
MHAFP5032 Policy and Pharmaceutical Regulation Presentation
Use the Capella University Library and the Internet to prepare for this assessment. Include the following activities as part of your preparation:
Condense your written testimony into a 5-minute-long recorded oral presentation. Create a 3–5-slide PowerPoint to present a structure to guide your recording. Follow this structure for your presentation:
This is what needs to be on the PowerPoint Presentation:
MHAFP5032 Policy and Pharmaceutical Regulation Presentation Introduction
A special acknowledgement the committee chairperson who happens to be the president and founder of Patients for Affordable Drugs, I also acknowledge the members of the committee who are boards members of the organization. This testimony has been prepared by the director of Patients for Affordable Drugs.
MHAFP5032 Policy and Pharmaceutical Regulation Presentation Background
Processes followed by pharmaceutical companies in the US are not made known to the public, and the patients have been at a disadvantage owing to the skyrocketed prices. The current pricing policy I place makes an allowance for the manufactures as there are no strict regulations that dictate the way pricing decisions are made.
In addition, brand-named products are facing no significant competition in the market, owing to the stringent approval policies of generic drugs. As of now, the FDA has in place a rigorous metric array which gauges the standards and market-worthiness of any generic drugs.
Moreover, the approval process takes time that is if a generic drug will be accepted by the FDA. All these factors bars competition in the market hence the continuous increase of drug prices in the country. The desired health policy change is centered on loosening the strictness of the FDA in terms of the generic drugs approval process.
Realizing this change will mean that new generic drugs will be easily approved, though complying with all required standards. Competition in the market will be stirred as patients will have alternatives to highly priced brand-name drugs. In response, pharmaceutical companies will be forced to standardize their drugs prices to remain competitive in the market.
The rigorous review process used by the FDA makes it difficult for new generic drug entrants to be approved. Patents also give pharmaceutical companies market exclusivity for a considerable period, a period in which these companies take advantage and come up with outrageous prices considering they have zero competition.
A specific aspect to be zoomed in and addressed is the FDA’s process of reviewing generic drugs applications. The FDA ought to review its policies with respect to reviewing generic drugs but must also ensure integrity and quality of these products. It comes down to developing efficiency of this process.
Reducing the time taken for a generic product to be approved and reducing the market exclusivity period given to brand name drugs.
Though the exclusivity time given to these drugs is attributed to the intensive investment made by the pharmaceutical company over a long period of time so as to manufacture the drug, it is integral to consider that the government partly or fully finances medical research, and the development of new drugs is at times courtesy of the taxpayers money.
On this account, pharmaceutical companies whose researches on drugs were financed by the government ought not to be given a long exclusivity period, but rather, the drugs ought to be sold to the public at low rates.
In any case the price remains to be substantially high, the FDA should embrace leniency in reviewing generic products that are to the required standard.
In the recent past, other interest groups have been advocating for reduced prescription drug prices in the country.
For example, earlier in the year, some of the states embraced change in policies that now require pharmaceutical companies to be transparent to the government and the public regarding their drug pricing process.
Some of the states that first approved this legislation are Connecticut and Maryland. In the state of Connecticut, an interest group by the name Universal Health Care Foundation of Connecticut was pivotal in creating advocacy for the transparency legislation.
As a result, insures are required to give reports to the state insurance department, elaborating on drugs prices through insure rate review procedure.
In Maryland, Maryland Citizen’s Health Initiative significantly contributed to the approval of the transparency policy whereby pharmaceutical companies are to elaborate the rationale for list prices of drugs.
Outcomes associated with the approval of these legislations are promising, as this has brought a sense of pharmaceutical companies being accountable to the state governments and the general public, getting rid of the opacity of the pricing process.
In the long run, unreasonable drug prices will be challenged if the rationale behind pricing process is not justifiable. A decrease in drug prices, on account of these new policies, is anticipated, making it easier for patients to access quality prescription drugs.
To further moderate prescription drug prices, the FDA should accelerate its generic drugs approval process so that new entrants can easily create competition in the drug market. The authority also ought to set up regulatory measures to regulate pricing of drugs depending on the authenticity of pricing rationale given by the manufactures.
Policymakers both at the state and federal levels should give ear to interest groups, constantly review policies governing health care products and services to ensure quality, service delivery and affordability of these products as offered to the general public.
A title page is often the first page a reader will see when looking at your research paper, essay, or other academic work. In MLA style formatting, which is used for many humanities and liberal arts subjects, the title page includes important information to identify the paper.
Creating a proper MLA format title page is simple once you know what elements to include. This guide will cover everything you need to make a title page that meets MLA guidelines. Let’s get started!
The Modern Language Association provides flexible guidelines when it comes to title pages. An MLA title page is not required for most student papers. So when should you create one?
Use a separate MLA format title page in these situations:
For most basic student essays and papers up to 10 pages, MLA states a title page is not strictly necessary. However, your instructor may still request one, even for shorter papers.
For nursing students, you will likely need to create title pages for lengthy research papers analyzing topics like nursing practices, medical procedures, patient case studies, and dissertations. Establishing your authorship is crucial for scholarly nursing papers.
A proper MLA paper title page should include the following core elements:
Additionally, you may be asked to include:
Here are the key facts about what each item on your title page should look like and where it should be positioned:
For a nursing student, this might look like:
Improving Medication Administration Safety in Nursing Practice
Mary Watson
University of Michigan School of Nursing
April 30, 2023
NURS 365: Nursing Research Professor Angela Green
This title page includes the core 4 elements plus the extra course details per the instructor’s guidelines.
To ensure your title page meets MLA standards, follow these important formatting guidelines:
Setting 1-inch margins and the Times New Roman 12-point font is essential for MLA compliance. Double spacing every line creates consistent readability.
Capitalizing the first letter of important words in the title is standard title case format. And numbering the title page gives readers context right away that this is the first page of your project.
Finally, including the header with your last name and page number on all pages following the title establishes you as the paper’s author in MLA style.
Instead of making a completely separate title page, MLA also allows writers to include a heading with title page elements at the very top of page 1.
This first-page heading contains the same information that would appear on a title page, but it’s included above the opening paragraph instead of on its own page.
Here’s an overview of the key differences between the two approaches:
Title PageFirst Page HeadingAppears alone on a dedicated page before page 1Appears at the very top of page 1 above the first paragraphIncludes ONLY the title, author name, organization, and due dateIncludes title, name, organization, date, course name, instructor name, etc.Unless your professor requests a title page, using a heading on page 1 is the preferred method. It’s simpler for papers that don’t need a standalone title page.
To create an MLA-style first-page heading:
Making a properly formatted title page only takes a few minutes. Follow these steps:
This will create a correctly formatted MLA title page like this nursing example:
Reducing Medication Errors Through Barcode Scanning
Jane Lee
Seton Hall University
May 5, 2023
The title is about one-third down, the name and organization are centered, and the due date is right aligned – all with proper spacing and fonts per MLA.
You can quickly customize this for other information your instructor requires. It takes just minutes but makes a huge difference in presenting your paper professionally.
Seeing properly formatted sample title pages is helpful for visualizing how all the elements come together.
Here are two examples of MLA title pages made correctly in Word:
Preventing Childhood Obesity Through Nutrition Education
Samantha Jones
Forest Hills High School
September 16, 2023
This title page contains just the required four elements – original title, author name, affiliated school, and due date. The student did not need to include any extra information.
The Importance of Vaccinations for Public Health
Jane Anderson
Duke University School of Medicine
Nursing 682: Healthcare Policy & Ethics Professor Taylor
October 28, 2023
For this title page, the nursing student needed to add the specific course name, number, and professor per the instructor’s guidelines. This additional info is centered below the school name.
Once your cover page is complete, simply start page 2 with the proper MLA header and dive into the body of your paper.
Making an MLA cover page is just as simple on Google Docs as Word. Follow these steps:
This will generate a correctly formatted title page. You can adjust it easily for any additional details. Then start page 2 with the proper MLA header using Insert > Header.
Yes, MLA papers require a title, even if you don’t use a separate title page. Simply place the title centered at the top of page 1 above the opening paragraph.
Double-space all text on your MLA title page – the title, your name, organization, due date, and any other info should be double-spaced.
Yes, number the title page as page 1 per official MLA guidelines. Place the page number in the top right corner.
The title page should be the very first page of your paper. After the title page, include your last name and page number 2 in the header, then begin the introduction.
The title, your name, school/organization, and due date are required. You may need to add your course name, instructor name, or other details requested.
A 61-year-old man who has a heart valve infection and recurrent fever
An 81-year-old woman who has had an ischemic stroke and has consequent one-sided weakness
A 44-year-old man awaiting a kidney transplant who requires hemodialysis three times per week
A 66-year-old woman with poorly controlled angina and consequent limited activity tolerance
Question 2.2. An older adult female patient has presented with a new onset of shortness of breath, and the patient’s nurse practitioner has ordered measurement of her BNP levels along with other diagnostic tests. What is the most accurate rationale for the nurse practitioner’s choice of blood work? (Points : 0.4)
BNP is released as a compensatory mechanism during heart failure and measuring it can help differentiate the patient’s dyspnea from a respiratory pathology.
BNP is an indirect indicator of the effectiveness of the RAA system in compensating for heart failure.
BNP levels correlate with the patient’s risk of developing cognitive deficits secondary to heart failure and consequent brain hypoxia.
BNP becomes elevated in cases of cardiac asthma, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, and acute pulmonary edema, and measurement can gauge the severity of pulmonary effects.
Question 3.3. An 81-year-old male resident of a long-term care facility has a long-standing diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following short-term and longer-term compensatory mechanisms is least likely to decrease the symptoms of his heart failure? (Points : 0.4)
An increase in preload via the Frank-Starling mechanism
Sympathetic stimulation and increased serum levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine
Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAA) system and secretion of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
AV node pacemaking activity and vagal nerve suppression
Question 4.4. A patient is experiencing impaired circulation secondary to increased systemic arterial pressure. Which of the following statements is the most relevant phenomenon? (Points : 0.4)
Increased preload due to vascular resistance
High afterload because of backpressure against the left ventricle
Impaired contractility due to aortic resistance
Systolic impairment because of arterial stenosis
Question 5.5. During a routine physical examination of a 66-year-old woman, her nurse practitioner notes a pulsating abdominal mass and refers the woman for further treatment. The nurse practitioner is explaining the diagnosis to the patient, who is unfamiliar with aneurysms. Which of the following aspects of the pathophysiology of aneurysms would underlie the explanation the nurse provides?(Points : 0.4)
Aneurysms are commonly a result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus.
Hypertension is a frequent modifiable contributor to aneurysms.
Individuals with an aneurysm are normally asymptomatic until the aneurysm ruptures.
Aneurysms can normally be resolved with lifestyle and diet modifications.
Question 6.6. A 31-year-old woman with a congenital heart defect reports episodes of lightheadedness and syncope, with occasional palpitations. A resting electrocardiogram reveals sinus bradycardia and she is suspected of having sick sinus syndrome. Which of the following diagnostic methods is the best choice to investigate the suspicion? (Points : 0.4)
Signal-averaged ECG
Exercise stress testing
Electrophysiologic study
Holter monitoring
Question 7.7. A physical assessment of a 28-year-old female patient indicates that her blood pressure in her legs is lower than that in her arms and that her brachial pulse is weaker in her left arm than in her right. In addition, her femoral pulses are weak bilaterally. Which of the following possibilities would her care provider be most likely to suspect? (Points : 0.4)
Pheochromocytoma
Essential hypertension
Coarctation of the aorta
An adrenocortical disorder
Question 8.8. A 70-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his calf that is exacerbated when he walks. His pedal and popliteal pulses are faintly palpable and his leg distal to the pain is noticeably reddened. What would his care provider’s preliminary diagnosis and anticipated treatment most likely be? (Points : 0.4)
Acute arterial occlusion that will be treated with angioplasty
Raynaud disease that will require antiplatelet medications
Atherosclerotic occlusive disease necessitating thrombolytic therapy
Giant cell temporal arteritis that will be treated with corticosteroids
Question 9.9. A 55-year-old male who is beginning to take a statin drug for his hypercholesterolemia is discussing cholesterol and its role in health and illness with his nurse practitioner. Which of the following aspects of hyperlipidemia would the nurse practitioner most likely take into account when teaching the patient? (Points : 0.4)
Hyperlipidemia is a consequence of diet and lifestyle rather than genetics.
HDL cholesterol is often characterized as being beneficial to health.
Cholesterol is a metabolic waste product that the liver is responsible for clearing.
The goal of medical treatment is to eliminate cholesterol from the vascular system.
Question 10.10. A 22-year-old male is experiencing hypovolemic shock following a fight in which his carotid artery was cut with a broken bottle. What immediate treatments are likely to most benefit the man? (Points : 0.4)
Resolution of compensatory pulmonary edema and heart arrhythmias
Infusion of vasodilators to foster perfusion and inotropes to improve heart contractility
Infusion of normal saline of Ringer lactate to maintain the vascular space
Administration of oxygen and epinephrine to promote perfusion
Question 11.11. A 68-year-old male complains to his nurse practitioner that when he tests his blood pressure using a machine at his pharmacy, his heart rate is nearly always very low. At other times, he feels that his heart is racing, and it also seems to pause at times. The man has also occasionally had lightheadedness and a recent syncopal episode. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis and the phenomenon underlying it? (Points : 0.4)
Sick sinus syndrome as a result of a disease of his sinus node and atrial or junctional arrhythmias
Ventricular arrhythmia as a result of alternating vagal and sympathetic stimulation
Torsades de pointes as a result of disease of the bundle of His
Premature atrial contractions that vacillate between tachycardic and bradycardic episodes as a consequence of an infectious process
Question 12.12. A 54-year-old man with a long-standing diagnosis of essential hypertension is meeting with his nurse practitioner. The patient’s nurse practitioner would anticipate that which of the following phenomena is most likely occurring? (Points : 0.4)
The patient’s juxtaglomerular cells are releasing aldosterone as a result of sympathetic stimulation.
Epinephrine from his adrenal gland is initiating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
Vasopressin is exerting an effect on his chemoreceptors and baroreceptors, resulting in vasoconstriction.
The conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II in his lungs causes increases in blood pressure and sodium reabsorption.
Question 13.13. A patient has suffered damage to his pericardium following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following consequences should the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out? (Points : 0.4)
Impaired physical restraint of the left ventricule
Increased friction during the contraction/relaxation cycle
Reduced protection from infectious organisms
Impaired regulation of myocardial contraction
Question 14.14. An 81-year-old female patient of a long-term care facility has a history of congestive heart failure. The nurse practitioner caring for the patient has positioned her sitting up at an angle in bed and is observing her jugular venous distention. Why is jugular venous distention a useful indicator for the assessment of the patient’s condition? (Points : 0.4)
Increased cardiac demand causes engorgement of systemic blood vessels, of which the jugular vein is one of the largest.
Blood backs up into the jugular vein because there are no valves at the point of entry into the heart.
Peripheral dilation is associated with decreased stroke volume and ejection fraction.
Heart valves are not capable of preventing backflow in cases of atrial congestion.
Question 15.15. A formerly normotensive woman, pregnant for the first time, develops hypertension and headaches at 26 weeks’ gestation. Her blood pressure is 154/110 mm Hg and she has proteinuria. What other labs should be ordered for her? (Points : 0.4)
Plasma angiotensin I and II and renin
Urinary sodium and potassium
Platelet count, serum creatinine, and liver enzymes
Urinary catecholamines and metabolites
Question 16.16. A 6-year-old boy has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance after his mother discovered that his heart rate was “so fast I couldn’t even count it.” The child was determined to be in atrial flutter and his mother is seeking an explanation from the health care team. Which of the following points should underlie an explanation to the mother? (Points : 0.4)
The child is experiencing a reentry rhythm in his right atrium.
The resolution of the problem is dependent on spontaneous recovery and is resistant to pacing interventions.
The child is likely to have a normal ECG apart from the rapid heart rate.
The boy’s atria are experiencing abnormal sympathetic stimulation.
Question 17.17. A 66-year-old obese man with a diagnosis of ischemic heart disease has been diagnosed with heart failure that his care team has characterized as attributable to systolic dysfunction. Which of the following assessment findings is inconsistent with his diagnosis? (Points : 0.4)
His resting blood pressure is normally in the range of 150/90 and an echocardiogram indicates his ejection fraction is 30%.
His end-diastolic volume is higher than normal and his resting heart rate is regular and 82 beats per minute.
He is presently volume overloaded following several days of intravenous fluid replacement.
Ventricular dilation and wall tension are significantly lower than normal.
Question 18.18. The nurse practitioner for a cardiology practice is responsible for providing presurgical teaching for patients who are about to undergo a coronary artery bypass graft. Which of the following teaching points best conveys an aspect of the human circulatory system? (Points : 0.4)
“Your blood pressure varies widely between arteries and veins, and between pulmonary and systemic circulation.”
“Only around one quarter of your blood is in your heart at any given time.”
“Blood pressure and blood volume roughly mimic one another at any given location in the circulatory system.”
“Left-sided and right-sided pumping action at each beat of the heart must equal each other to ensure adequate blood distribution.”
Question 19.19. A nurse practitioner is instructing a group of older adults about the risks associated with high cholesterol. Which of the following teaching points should the participants try to integrate into their lifestyle after the teaching session? (Points : 0.4)
“Remember, the ‘H’ in HDL and the ‘L’ in LDL correspond to high danger and low danger to your health.”
“Having high cholesterol increases your risk of developing diabetes and irregular heart rate.”
“Smoking and being overweight increases your risk of primary hypercholesterolemia.”
“Your family history of hypercholesterolemia is important, but there are things you can do to compensate for a high inherited risk.”
Question 20.20. A 66-year-old patient’s echocardiogram reveals a hypertrophied left ventricle, normal chamber volume, and a normal ejection fraction from the heart. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis? (Points : 0.4)
Mitral valve regurgitation
Aortic valve stenosis
Mitral valve stenosis
Aortic valve regurgitation
Question 21.21. In which of the following patient situations would a nurse practitioner be most justified in preliminarily ruling out pericarditis as a contributing pathology to the patient’s health problems? (Points : 0.4)
A 61-year-old man whose ECG was characterized by widespread T wave inversions on admission but whose T waves have recently normalized
A 77-year-old with diminished S3 and S4 sounds, an irregular heart rate, and a history of atrial fibrillation
A 56-year-old obese man who is complaining of chest pain that is exacerbated by deep inspiration and is radiating to his neck and scapular ridge
A 60-year-old woman whose admission blood work indicates elevated white cells, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein levels
Question 22.22. Which of the following assessment findings in a newly admitted 30-year-old male patient would be most likely to cause his nurse practitioner to suspect polyarteritis nodosa? (Points : 0.4)
The man’s blood work indicates polycythemia (elevated red cells levels) and leukocytosis (elevated white cells).
The man’s blood pressure is 178/102 and he has abnormal liver function tests.
The man is acutely short of breath and his oxygen saturation is 87%.
The man’s temperature is 101.9°F and he is diaphoretic (heavily sweating).
Question 23.23. As part of the diagnostic workup for a male patient with a complex history of cardiovascular disease, the care team has identified the need for a record of the electrical activity of his heart, insight into the metabolism of his myocardium, and physical measurements, and imaging of his heart. Which of the following series of tests is most likely to provide the needed data for his diagnosis and care? (Points : 0.4)
Echocardiogram, PET scan, ECG
Ambulatory ECG, cardiac MRI, echocardiogram
Serum creatinine levels, chest auscultation, myocardial perfusion scintigraphy
Cardiac catheterization, cardiac CT, exercise stress testing
Question 24.24. An autopsy is being performed on a 44-year-old female who died unexpectedly of heart failure. Which of the following components of the pathologist’s report is most suggestive of a possible history of poorly controlled blood pressure? (Points : 0.4)
“Scarring of urethra suggestive of recurrent urinary tract infections is evident.”
“Bilateral renal hypertrophy noted.”
“Vessel wall changes suggestive of venous stasis are evident.”
“Arterial sclerosis of subcortical brain regions noted.”
Question 25.25. A nurse practitioner has ordered the measurement of a cardiac patient’s electrolyte levels as part of the patient’s morning blood work. Which of the following statements best captures the importance of potassium in the normal electrical function of the patient’s heart?(Points : 0.4)
Potassium catalyzes the metabolism of ATP, producing the gradient that results in electrical stimulation.
Potassium is central to establishing and maintaining the resting membrane potential of cardiac muscle cells.
The impermeability of cardiac cell membranes to potassium allows for action potentials achieved by the flow of sodium ions.
The reciprocal movement of one potassium ion for one sodium ion across the cell membrane results in the production of an action potential.
14.
Blood backs up into the jugular vein because there are no valves at the point of entry into the heart.
The child is experiencing a reentry rhythm in his right atrium.
Ventricular dilation and wall tension are significantly lower than normal.
“Your blood pressure varies widely between arteries and veins, and between pulmonary and systemic circulation.”
“Your family history of hypercholesterolemia is important, but there are things you can do to compensate for a high inherite
Aortic valve stenosis
21.
A 77-year-old with diminished S3 and S4 sounds, an irregular heart rate, and a history of atrial fibrillation
22.
The man’s blood pressure is 178/102 and he has abnormal liver function tests.
Echocardiogram, PET scan, ECG
24.
“Arterial sclerosis of subcortical brain regions noted.”
The impermeability of cardiac cell membranes to potassium allows for action potentials achieved by the flow of sodium ions.
If work submitted for this Competency Assessment does not meet the minimum submission requirements
This Competency Assessment assesses the following outcome(s):
MN501-1: Determine the impact of the APRN Consensus Model on APRN practice.
Advanced Nursing Practice and Advanced Practice Nursing
Your paper must be presented in a single Word document. The paper must be between 4 to 5 pages in length, not including the title and reference list pages. The paper must use proper APA formatting as directed in the APA Publication Manual, 7th edition formatting, including title page, and reference list with properly formatted citations in the body of the paper.
You are encouraged to consult the Academic Success Center prior to submitting your paper. To view the Grading Rubric for this Assignment, please visit the Grading Rubrics section of the Course Resources.
Assignment Requirements:
Before finalizing your work, you should:
Your writing Assignment should:
Minimum Submission Requirements
If work submitted for this competency assessment does not meet the minimum submission requirements, it will be returned without being scored.
If work submitted for this Competency Assessment does not meet the minimum submission requirements, it will be returned without being scored.
CRITERIAMETNOT METAdvanced practice nursing and advanced nursing practice discussion [The difference between advanced nursing practice and advanced practice nursing is clearly articulated. The discussion provides a detailed overview of the key differences.] Population Focused Roles [Population focused roles are discussed in detail for the specific state chosen.] Evaluate certification opportunities for your chosen role. [Certification credential is provided and discussed in detail.] Develop your licensure, accreditation, certification, and education plan based on your chosen advanced nursing practice role. [All four components of licensure, accreditation, certification, and education discussed for chosen advanced nursing role.] State-specific implications for chosen advanced practice nursing or nursing advanced practice role. [Identified three or more state-specific implications for chosen nursing advanced practice or advanced practice nursing role. Discussion is detailed and comprehensive. Length [Paper was 4-5 pages in length not including the title and reference page.] Overall # Bold Criteria Met/Not Met [Overall # Mastery Criteria Met/Not Met]The criterion statements in bold are the minimum requirement to show competent performance on the course outcome; all bold criteria must be met to pass this Course Outcome.
The criterion statements in [Brackets] represent mastery achievement. A predefined number of mastery criteria must be achieved to earn an A grade, indicating mastery of the Course Outcome.
CLA and Grade Criteria Chart
CRITERIACLA ScoreGradePointsMeets all bold criteria and 50%-100% of mastery criteria5A1,000Meets all bold criteria and 0%-49% of mastery criteria4B850Meets 75%-99% of bold criteria3Not yet competent (F at term end)0Meets 50%-74% of bold criteria2Not yet competent (F at term end)0Meets 1%-49% of bold criteria1Not yet competent (F at term end)0Meets no bold criteria0Not yet competent (F at term end)0No submissionNANot yet competent (F at term end)0The nursing profession has a broad scope of practice, and nurses have opportunities to advance their knowledge and skills in various fields. Increasing knowledge and training facilitate accreditation and licensure for advanced practice. Advanced nursing practice roles provide nurses with several added privileges unavailable to the registered nurses’ roles (Agyepong & Okyere, 2018). An education plan is integral for any nurse to succeed in the advanced practice roles, which are relatively demanding. This essay explores the differences between Advanced Practice Nursing and Advanced Practice Registered Nursing increase and FPN’s focus population, certification, licensure, accreditation, education, and state implications.
Advanced Nursing Practice refers to post-graduate-educated nurses with advanced education and training. APNs include nurses with a doctorate, post-graduate, and master’s training.The ICN refers to Advanced practice nursing as the nursing field that extends the nursing scope of practice boundaries and nursing knowledge and skills and promotes professional development. Advanced practice nurses work as specialists or generalists with master’s and doctorate training (Schober et al., 2020). They are prepared with didactic skills and knowledge and have a broader scope of nursing practice. APN is an informal term to refer to nurses with post-graduate training without mentioning their specialization. APNs in clinical settings have added roles such as team, ward, and institutional leadership and educative roles as preceptors or lecturers in healthcare institutions (Schober et al., 2020).
Advanced Practice Registered Nursing refers to specialized nursing that has met specific requirements for specialized nursing roles. It relates to either of the four APRN roles: nurse practitioners, certified nurse-midwives, certified registered nurse anesthetists, and clinical nurse specialists (ANA, n.d.). Unlike other advanced practice nurses, APRNS focus on and serve specific populations. They offer their advanced knowledge and skills to these populations. These APRNs can also practice in other areas but as registered nurses, unlike some APN roles. APRNs are all advanced practice nurses, but not all APNs are APRNs (ANA, n.d.). Thus, APRN is a narrower field, with specialized roles, unlike APN, which has a broader scope. The distinction between the two roles dictates the areas these professionals can work in, licensure and certification requirements, and the focus populations. Understanding these differences helps individuals plan their career and professional development.
My APRN role, Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP), falls under the nurse practitioner APRN role. Other types of nurse practitioners include Pediatric Nurse Practitioner (Acute or Primary Care), Women’s Health Nurse Practitioners, Neonatal Nurse Practitioners, Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioners, and others (GraduateNursingEdu.org, n.d). Unlike other roles, family nurse practitioners are general practitioners without a specific population. However, they possess the knowledge for advanced care for all family members of all ages and with all health conditions. FNPs have flexible populations depending on an individual’s interest. FNPs primarily focus on the family, hence their integral role in primary care. FNPs can specialize in any of the functions sub-specialties depending on their interests, job availability, and other factors.
Certification is vital for any nurse to be licensed as a practitioner. Certification and licensing require advanced training and education, thus meeting the requirements of a certain advanced practice role (RegisteredNursing.org, 2022). Certification opportunities are the different ways a trained nurse can obtain a practicing license. There are two certification opportunities in FNP: FNP-C and FNP-BC, with slight variations. The American Academy of Nurse Practitioners offers FNP-C, while the FNP-BC is offered by the American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) (RegisteredNursing.org, 2022). There are slight variations in these courses regarding the foci as either in academia or clinical practice. However, the differences are negligible, and nurses certified by the different institutions receive equal treatment relative to their achievements. However, nurses’ preferences differ due to personal interests, prospects, costs, and length. Students are allowed the liberty to choose their preferred certification opportunity, emphasizing the equality of the two certifications.
The FNP licensure requires the completion of an accredited FNP program such as a post-graduate, master’s, or doctorate program. As a licensed registered nurse, I plan to do a two-year master’s program for FNP licensure and accreditation. After completing its certification examination, I plan to utilize the FNP-BC certification opportunity with certification by the ANCC Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) board. The certification will be after successful training for the period required by the certification body. Accreditation will be by the ANCC, the only institution accrediting family nurse practitioners in the USA (RegisteredNursing.org, 2022). The first step to attaining an FNP license is devising an education plan as a practicing nurse. To ensure an excellent work-education-life balance, I plan to do the program in two years at Walden University. I will attend d virtual classes online and do my clinical practice at the hospital I currently work at because it is Walden accredited. More so, I will participate in physical examinations and mandatory physical classes. Successfully completing these classes, assignments, and clinical practicum will lead to successful accreditation, certification, and licensure to practice as an FNP.
Being an FNP has several implications, which are both negative and positive. FNPs have a better understanding of primary care. They also have knowledge and skills in diagnosis, pathophysiology, and care plans (RegisteredNursing.org, 2022). The first implication of being an FNP in my state is that they have added APRN roles and privileges. The added roles include diagnosing and prescribing patient treatments. Another implication is increased pay. All FNP, after accreditation and licensure, enjoy competitively higher salaries and compensation for the knowledge and skills they bring to the healthcare environment (GraduateNursingEdu.org, n.d). As an FNP, the APRN enjoys flexibility in opportunities and further specialization. The FNP can work in various departments within the broad scope of FNP practice. In addition, the FNP in the course is eligible for private independent practice without the supervision of physicians. FNPs are highly trained in primary care and provide specialized holistic care to all patients across the lifespan (GraduateNursingEdu.org, n.d.). FNPs in the state are allowed to practice independently, increasing their access and ability to follow-up patients, thus promoting better patient outcomes.
Advanced practice nursing encompasses many roles, including APRN roles, as seen above. APNs are highly trained nurses who offer specialized care to specific populations. Unlike other advanced practice roles, the FNP has no specific populations and is thus general practitioners in primary care. Adequate preparation through education, licensure, accreditation and certification planning helps succeed. There are two certification opportunities for the FNP role: FNP-C and FNP-BC. The FNP has several implications, such as change of scope of practice, pay, and ability to practice independently depending on the state’s regulations and specifications. The FNP program is also integral for professional and career development due to the various opportunities available within the role.
Agyepong, E. B., & Okyere, E. D. (2018). Analysis of the concept of continuing education in nursing education. Journal of Education and Educational Development, 5(1). http://jmsnew.iobmresearch.com/index.php/joeed/article/view/149
American Nurses Association (ANA), (n.d). Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN). Practice and Advocacy. https://www.nursingworld.org/practice-policy/workforce/what-is-nursing/aprn/
GraduateNursingEdu.org (n.d.). What Is a Family Nurse Practitioner? What Is a Family Nurse Practitioner? https://www.graduatenursingedu.org/family-nurse-practitioner/
RegisteredNursing.org (2022). Nursing Certifications. FNP-C vs. FNP-BC: Family Nurse Practitioner Certification. https://www.registerednursing.org/certification/family-nurse-practitioner/
Schober, M., Lehwaldt, D., Rogers, M., Steinke, M., Turale, S., Pulcini, J., Roussel, J., & Stewart, D. (2020). Guidelines on advanced practice nursing. International Council of Nurses. https://www.icn.ch/system/files/documents/2020-04/ICN_APN%20Report_EN_WEB.pdf
This Competency Assessment assesses the following outcome(s):
MN501-2: Examine advanced practice nursing roles with regards to their interaction with other healthcare providers in collaborative practice models.
Interprofessional Collaboration
Directions:
You will prepare a 7-10 slide PowerPoint presentation meeting the following criteria.
Interprofessional collaboration is essential for advanced nursing practice and the success of the healthcare team. It is crucial to remember that all healthcare team members are working towards the same goal of advancing health and promoting favorable patient outcomes. Review the Interprofessional Collaborative Initiative Domains and Competencies located in Box 12.1 of the Tracy and O’Grady textbook. You will prepare an educational PowerPoint presentation to share with your colleagues in practice that provides an overview of each of the four competencies of the Interprofessional Collaborative Initiative Domains and Competencies and the different components that support this. You will provide an evidence-based practice intervention that you can use in your future MSN-prepared role to help support collaboration of the healthcare team.
Your presentation must be presented in a single PowerPoint presentation. The presentation must be between 7 and 10 slides in length, not including the title and reference slides. The presentation must use proper APA formatting as directed in the APA Publication Manual, 76th edition formatting, including title slide and reference list with properly formatted citations in the body of the presentation.
To view the Grading Rubric for this Assignment, please visit the Grading Rubrics section of the Course Resources.
Assignment Requirements:
Before finalizing your work, you should:
Your writing Assignment should:
Minimum Submission Requirements
If work submitted for this competency assessment does not meet the minimum submission requirements, it will be returned without being scored.
If work submitted for this Competency Assessment does not meet the minimum submission requirements, it will be returned without being scored.
CRITERIAMETNOT METInterprofessional collaboration responsibility [Clearly described interprofessional collaboration responsibilities and provided a detailed application to chosen advanced practice or nursing advanced practice role.] Evidence-based practice strategy [Provided a discussion of one evidence-based practice strategy. Focus could relate more to advanced practice nursing or nursing advanced practice.] Evaluation of interprofessional collaboration responsibilities [Clearly evaluated interprofessional collaboration responsibilities.] Length [Assignment is 7-10 slides and 10 minutes in length.] Overall # Bold Criteria Met/Not Met [Overall # Mastery Criteria Met/Not Met]The criterion statements in bold are the minimum requirement to show competent performance on the course outcome; all bold criteria must be met to pass this Course Outcome.
The criterion statements in [Brackets] represent mastery achievement. A predefined number of mastery criteria must be achieved to earn an A grade, indicating mastery of the Course Outcome.
CLA and Grade Criteria Chart
CRITERIACLA ScoreGradePointsMeets all bold criteria and 50%-100% of mastery criteria5A1,000Meets all bold criteria and 0%-49% of mastery criteria4B850Meets 75%-99% of bold criteria3Not yet competent (F at term end)0Meets 50%-74% of bold criteria2Not yet competent (F at term end)0Meets 1%-49% of bold criteria1Not yet competent (F at term end)0Meets no bold criteria0Not yet competent (F at term end)0No submissionNANot yet competent (F at term end)0This Competency Assessment assesses the following outcome(s):
MN501-3: Investigate novel roles for advanced practice nursing related to emerging healthcare trends and needs.
Leading through Change
Purpose:
Nurses work together in rapidly changing environments and must adapt to keep up with these changes. Understanding the chosen nursing advanced practice role, change theory, and leadership skills fosters cooperative relationships and advances healthcare for all as nurses leading in the healthcare environment.
Directions:
Analyze your chosen MSN role. Reflect on the future of nursing and healthcare and how your chosen MSN role, change management, and leadership strategies will address the needs of the future healthcare system.
Your paper must be presented in a single Word document. The paper must be between 3 to 4 pages in length, not including the title and reference list pages. The paper must use proper APA formatting as directed in the APA Publication Manual, 7th edition, including title page, running head, and reference list with properly formatted citations in the body of the paper.
To view the Grading Rubric for this Assignment, please visit the Grading Rubrics section of the Course Resources.
Assignment Requirements:
Before finalizing your work, you should:
Your writing Assignment should:
Minimum Submission Requirements
If work submitting for this Competency Assessment does not meet the minimum submission requirements, it will be returned without being scored.
CRITERIAMETNOT METEmerging healthcare trends [Evaluate the future vision and goals of your chosen MSN role and relate to emerging healthcare trends and needs.] Change management [Investigate change management strategies you and other nursing advanced practice colleagues should understand to promote appropriate change management and response to the rapidly evolving healthcare system.] Leadership qualities [Appropriate leadership qualities necessary for your chosen advanced nursing practice role. Determine qualities you currently possess and those qualities you will need to develop for your chosen role.] Leadership toolbox [Develop a plan to expand your leadership toolbox. What will you do to develop your leadership skills for future needs and challenges.] Length [Paper was 3-4 pages, not including title of reference page.] Overall # Bold Criteria Met/Not Met [Overall # Mastery Criteria Met/Not Met]Family Nurse Practice are advanced role nurse practitioners who focus on the family’s health and do not pay attention to specific groups. This advanced nursing practice role requires nurses to have advanced knowledge and skills in various leadership and change management competencies. This essay explores the FNP vision and goals and evaluates leadership and change management skills and strategies required for this role.
The future vision of nursing practice is to ensure healthy families that understand and execute their roles in promoting healthier, stronger, and cohesive families and that easily adapt to changes in health requirements (Marilyn & Vicky, 2019). The goals of FNP based on the FNP competencies and the American Nurses Association are to transform healthcare through leadership skills, collaborate with other healthcare professionals for teamwork and communication. Other goals are to provide culturally sensitive care in research, leadership, practice, and community involvement and create interactive approaches through innovative technology in nursing research, education, and practice (Marilyn & Vicky, 2019).
The healthcare sector is ever-changing, and so are the various patient needs. Coopetition or cooperative competition is an emerging strategy in nursing where institutions focus on learning from others who have succeeded in care provision (Albert-Cromarias & Dos Santos, 2020). This trend has helped curb costs and avoid draining practices whose practices are not proven beneficial. Another trend is the shift to telehealth, which has increased access to healthcare services without disrupting daily activities, thus promoting healthier families with more access to knowledge and healthcare services (Ali et al., 2020). Emerging diseases and conditions are hence changing patient needs. There has been a series of emerging diseases, such as COVID 19 and hantavirus, to which nurse practitioners must prepare families to adapt (Albert-Cromarias & Dos Santos, 2020). As discussed earlier, dealing with these families requires extensive knowledge and cultural sensitivity.
Change in healthcare can be progressive such as adapting to a change in the nursing curriculum or leadership position, or abrupt, such as adapting to acute healthcare conditions in epidemics and disease outbreaks. Healthcare professionals in primary care, such as FNPs, need to adapt to change. Staff education is a vital change management strategy (Torani et al., 2019). Educating staff increases persuasion, delivers logic to the staff, and helps gain buy-in from the involved staff. Evidence-based practices promote better nursing research, education, and practice and hence a well-structured education is a vital tool in gaining buy-in and promoting change management in healthcare.
Shared decision-making through staff involvement in the decision-making process is another effective strategy in decision-making (Amarantou et al., 2018). FNPs should ensure they involve all staff in change. Informing staff is important in ensuring they participate in change. Their involvement also produces high-quality decisions by including all professional perspectives. These decisions thus lead to better outcomes and minimize the resistance and chances of change failure. Comprehensive planning and the development of clear goals and objectives are important in promoting acceptance of a change. Advocating for developing clear objectives and goals by contributing to the ideas using advanced knowledge and skills will significantly influence change management (Vaishnavi et al., 2019). Thus, implementing these strategies will lead to effective c